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  • Microsoft AZ-104 Exam Video
  • Microsoft Role-based AZ-104 Exam Questions Answers
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Microsoft AZ-104 Exam Video

Microsoft Role-based AZ-104 Exam Questions Answers

With a total of 13 practice questions.

If you are looking for the authentic Microsoft AZ-104 exam questions please see:

QUESTION 1
You have an app named App1 that runs on an Azure web app named webapp1. The developers at your company
upload an update of App1 to a Git repository named GUI. Webapp1 has the deployment slots shown in the following table.
exammodule az-104 exam questions-q1

You need to ensure that the App1 update is tested before the update is made available to users. Which two actions
should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE Each correct selection is worth one
point.
A. Stop webapp1 prod.
B. Stop webapp1-test
C. Deploy the App1 update to webapp1-test and then test the update.
D. Deploy the App1 update to webapp1-prod and then test the update.
E. Swap the slots.
Correct Answer: CE
You can validate web app changes in a staging deployment slot before swapping it with the production slot. Deploying
an app to a slot first and swapping it into production makes sure that all instances of the slot are warmed up before
being swapped into production. This eliminates downtime when you deploy your app. The traffic redirection is seamless,
and no requests are dropped because of swap operations. You can automate this entire workflow by configuring auto
swap when pre-swap validation isn\\’t needed. After the swap, you can deploy the App1 update to webapp1-test, and
then test the update. If the changes swapped into the production slot aren\\’t as per your expectation then you can
perform the same swap immediately to get your “last known good site” back. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/app-service/deploy-staging-slots


QUESTION 2
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains the objects shown in the following table.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q2

The groups have the memberships shown in the following table.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q2-2

OU1 and OU2 are synced to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). You modify the synchronization settings and remove
OU1 from synchronization. You sync Active Directory and Azure AD. Which objects are in Azure AD?
A. User4 and Group2 only
B. User2, Group1, User4, and Group2 only
C. User1, User2, Group1, User4, and Group2 only
D. User1, User2, User3, User4, Group1, and Group2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources in the following table.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q3

Subnet1 is associated to VNet1. NIC1 attaches VM1 to Subnet1.
You need to apply ASG1 to VM1.
What should you do?
A. Modify the properties of NSG1.
B. Modify the properties of ASG1.
C. Associate NIC1 to ASG1.
Correct Answer: C
Application Security Group can be associated with NICs.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview#application-security-groups

QUESTION 4
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q4

VM1 connects to VNET1.
You need to connect VM1 to VNET2.
Solution: You delete VM1. You recreate VM1, and then you create a new network interface for VM1 and connect it to
VNET2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that is used be several departments at your company.
Subscription1 contains the resources in the following table:

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q5

Another administrator deploys a virtual machine named VM1 and an Azure Storage account named Storage2 by using a
single Azure Resource Manager template. You need to view the template used for the deployment. From which blade
can you view the template that was used for the deployment?
A. RG1
B. VM1
C. Storage1
D. Container1
Correct Answer: A
1.
View template from deployment history
Go to the resource group for your new resource group. Notice that the portal shows the result of the last deployment.
Select this link.
2.
You see a history of deployments for the group. In your case, the portal probably lists only one deployment. Select this
deployment.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q5-2

The portal displays a summary of the deployment. The summary includes the status of the deployment and its
operations and the values that you provided for parameters. To see the template that you used for the deployment,
select View template.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q5-3

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-manager-export-template

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains the resources in the following table.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q6

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q6-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q6-3

Correct Answer:
exammodule az-104 exam questions-q6-4

Vm1 is in Pool1. Rule2 applies to Pool1, Listener 2, and site2.contoso.com


QUESTION 7
Your on-premises network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com that is synced to Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD). Password writeback is disabled. In adatum.com, you create the users shown in the following
table.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q7

Which users must sign in from a computer joined to adatum.com?
A. User2 only
B. User1 and User3 only
C. User1, User2, and User3
D. User2 and User3 only
E. User1 only
Correct Answer: E
Password writeback is a feature enabled with Azure AD Connect that allows password changes in the cloud to be
written back to an existing on-premises directory in real-time.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-sspr-writeback

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com and an
Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster named AKS1. An administrator reports that she is unable to grant access to
AKS1 to the users in contoso.com. You need to ensure that access to AKS1 can be granted to the contoso.com users.
What should you do first?
A. From contoso.com, modify the Organization relationships settings.
B. From contoso.com, create an OAuth 2.0 authorization endpoint.
C. Recreate AKS1.
D. From AKS1, create a namespace.
Correct Answer: B
With Azure AD-integrated AKS clusters, you can grant users or groups access to Kubernetes resources within a
namespace or across the cluster. To obtain a kubectl configuration context, a user can run the az aks get-credentials
command.
When a user then interacts with the AKS cluster with kubectl, they\\’re prompted to sign in with their Azure AD
credentials. This approach provides a single source for user account management and password credentials. The user
can only
access the resources as defined by the cluster administrator.
Azure AD authentication is provided to AKS clusters with OpenID Connect. OpenID Connect is an identity layer built on
top of the OAuth 2.0 protocol. For more information on OpenID Connect, see the Open ID connect documentation.
From
inside of the Kubernetes cluster, Webhook Token Authentication is used to verify authentication tokens. Webhook token
authentication is configured and managed as part of the AKS cluster.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q8

Reference: https://kubernetes.io/docs/reference/access-authn-authz/authentication/ https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/aks/concepts-identity

QUESTION 9
You plan to create the Azure web apps shown in the following table.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q9

 What is the minimum number of App Service plans you should create for the web apps?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return
to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You manage a virtual network named VNet1 that
is hosted in the West US Azure region. VNet1 hosts two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2 that run Windows
Server. You need to inspect all the network traffic from VM1 to VM2 for a period of three hours. Solution: From Azure
Network Watcher, you create a connection monitor. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes B. No
Correct Answer: B
Network Watcher Connection Monitor enables you to configure and track connection reachability, latency, and network
topology changes. It helps reduce the amount of time to detect connectivity problems. The returned results can provide
insights into whether a connectivity problem is due to a platform or a user configuration problem. This is not used in
cases where we need to inspect all the network traffic from one VM to another VM. On the other hand Network
Watcher
packet capture allows you to create capture sessions to track traffic to and from a virtual machine. So in this scenario,
we need to use Network Watcher packet capture
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/updates/general-availability-azure-network-watcher-connection-monitor-in-all-publicregions/#:~:text=Network%20Watcher%20Connection%20Monitor%20helps,or%20a%20user%20con figuration%
20problem
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-packet-capture-manage-portal 

QUESTION 11
You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?
A. an Azure Notification Hub
B. an Azure Event Hub
C. an Azure Logic App
D. an Azure services Bus
Correct Answer: B
Scenario: Create a workflow to send an email message when the settings of VM4 are modified. You can start an
automated logic app workflow when specific events happen in Azure resources or third-party resources. These
resources can publish those events to an Azure event grid. In turn, the event grid pushes those events to subscribers
that have queues, webhooks, or event hubs as endpoints. As a subscriber, your logic app can wait for those events from
the event grid before running automated workflows to perform tasks – without you writing any code. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app


QUESTION 12
You deploy an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster named Cluster1 that uses the IP addresses shown in the
following table.

exammodule az-104 exam questions-q12

You need to provide internet users with access to the applications that run in Cluster1. Which IP address should you
include in the DNS record for Ousted?
A. 172.17.7.1
B. 131.107.2.1
C. 192.168.10.2
D. 10.0.10.11
Correct Answer: B
When any internet user will try to access the cluster which is behind a load balancer, traffic will first hit to load balancer
front end IP. So in the DNS configuration, you have to provide the IP address of the load balancer.
Reference:
https://stackoverflow.com/questions/43660490/giving-a-dns-name-to-azure-load-balancer


QUESTION 13
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that contains an Azure Log Analytics workspace named
Workspace1.
You need to view the error events from a table named Event.
Which query should you run in Workspace1?
A. Event | where EventType is “error”
B. Event | search “error”
C. select * from Event where EventType == “error”
D. Get-Event Event | where {$_.EventType -eq “error”}
Correct Answer: B
To search a term in a specific table, add in (table-name) just after the search operator Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/log-query/get-started-queries 

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CompTIA CySA+ CS0-001 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A worm was detected on multiple PCs within the remote office. The security analyst recommended that the remote
office be blocked from the corporate network during the incident response. Which of the following processes BEST
describes this recommendation?
A. Logical isolation of the remote office
B. Sanitization of the network environment
C. Segmentation of the network
D. Secure disposal of affected systems
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A security analyst is reviewing output from a CVE-based vulnerability scanner. Before conducting the scan, the analyst
was careful to select only Windows-based servers in a specific datacenter. The scan revealed that the datacenter
includes 27 machines running Windows 2003 Server Edition (Win2003SE). In 2015, there were 36 new vulnerabilities
discovered in the Win2003SE environment. Which of the following statements are MOST likely applicable? (Choose
two.)
A. Remediation is likely to require some form of compensating control.
B. Microsoft\\’s published schedule for updates and patches for Win2003SE have continued uninterrupted.
C. Third-party vendors have addressed all of the necessary updates and patches required by Win2003SE.
D. The resulting report on the vulnerability scan should include some reference that the scan of the datacenter included
27 Win2003SE machines that should be scheduled for replacement and deactivation.
E. Remediation of all Win2003SE machines requires changes to configuration settings and compensating controls to be
made through Microsoft Security Center\\’s Win2003SE Advanced Configuration Toolkit.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Company A permits visiting business partners from Company B to utilize Ethernet ports available in Company A\\’s
conference rooms. This access is provided to allow partners the ability to establish VPNs back to Company B\\’s
network. The security architect for Company A wants to ensure partners from Company B are able to gain direct Internet
access from available ports only, while Company A employees can gain access to the Company A internal network from
those same ports. Which of the following can be employed to allow this?
A. ACL
B. SIEM
C. MAC
D. NAC
E. SAML
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A security architect is reviewing the options for performing input validation on incoming web form submissions. Which of
the following should the architect as the MOST secure and manageable option?
A. Client-side whitelisting
B. Server-side whitelisting
C. Server-side blacklisting
D. Client-side blacklisting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A suite of three production servers that were originally configured identically underwent the same vulnerability scans.
However, recent results revealed the three servers has different critical vulnerabilities. The servers are not accessible by
the Internet, and AV programs have not detected any malware. The servers\\’ syslog files do not show any unusual
traffic since they were installed and are physically isolated in an off-site datacenter. Checksum testing of random
executables does not reveal tampering. Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely?
A. Servers have not been scanned with the latest vulnerability signature
B. Servers have been attacked by outsiders using zero-day vulnerabilities
C. Servers were made by different manufacturers
D. Servers have received different levels of attention during previous patch management events
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A technician at a company\\’s retail store notifies an analyst that disk space is being consumed at a rapid rate on several
registers. The uplink back to the corporate office is also saturated frequently. The retail location has no Internet access.
An analyst then observes several occasional IPS alerts indicating a server at corporate has been communicating with
an address on a watchlist. Netflow data shows large quantities of data transferred at those times.
Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?
A. A credit card processing file was declined by the card processor and caused transaction logs on the registers to accumulate longer than usual.
B. Ransomware on the corporate network has propagated from the corporate network to the registers and has begun
encrypting files there.
C. A penetration test is being run against the registers from the IP address indicated on the watchlist, generating large
amounts of traffic and data storage.
D. Malware on a register is scraping credit card data and staging it on a server at the corporate office before uploading it
to an attacker-controlled command and control server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A web application has a newly discovered vulnerability in the authentication method used to validate known company
users. The user ID of Admin with a password of “password” grants elevated access to the application over the Internet.
Which of the following is the BEST method to discover the vulnerability before a production deployment?
A. Manual peer review
B. User acceptance testing
C. Input validation
D. Stress test the application
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following tools should a cybersecurity analyst use to verify the integrity of a forensic image before and after
an investigation?
A. strings
B. sha1sum
C. file
D. dd
E. gzip
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Employees at a manufacturing plant have been victims of spear phishing, but security solutions prevented further
intrusions into the network. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate solution in this scenario?
A. Continue to monitor security devices
B. Update antivirus and malware definitions
C. Provide security awareness training
D. Migrate email services to a hosted environment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A security analyst has a sample of malicious software and needs to know what the sample does? The analyst runs the
sample in a carefully controlled and monitored virtual machine to observe the software behavior. Which of the following
malware analysis approaches is this?
A. White box testing
B. Fuzzing
C. Sandboxing
D. Static code analysis
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
During a web application vulnerability scan, it was discovered that the application would display inappropriate data after
certain key phrases were entered into a webform connected to a SQL database server. Which of the following should be
used to reduce the likelihood of this type of attack returning sensitive data?
A. Static code analysis
B. Peer review code
C. Input validation
D. Application fuzzing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A cybersecurity analyst wants to use ICMP ECHO_REQUEST on a machine while using Nmap. Which of the following
is the correct command to accomplish this?
A. $ nmap –PE 192.168.1.7
B. $ ping –PE 192.168.1.7
C. $ nmap –traceroute 192.168.1.7
D. $ nmap –PO 192.168.1.7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
External users are reporting that a web application is slow and frequently times out when attempting to submit
information. Which of the following software development best practices would have helped prevent this issue?
A. Stress testing
B. Regression testing
C. Input validation
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: A

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Lpi Lpic Level 2 202-450 Practice Exam

QUESTION 1
In order to prevent all anonymous FTP users from listing uploaded file names, what security precaution can be taken
when creating an upload directory?
A. The directory must not have the execute permission set.
B. The directory must not have the read permission set.
C. The directory must not have the read or execute permission set.
D. The directory must not have the write permission set.
E. The directory must not contain other directories.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
What command is used to print NFS kernel statistics? (Provide the command with or without complete path)
A. nfsstat
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which Squid configuration keyword is used to define networks and times that the service may be accessed?
A. acl
B. allow
C. http_allow
D. permit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
FILL BLANK
Which doveadm sub-command displays a list of connections of Dovecot in the following format? (Specify ONLY the
command without any parameters.)
Correct Answer: who
Reference: https://wiki2.dovecot.org/Tools/Doveadm/Who

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are Samba security modes or levels? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. ads
B. data
C. ldap
D. network
E. share
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 6
When the default policy for the iptables INPUT chain is set to DROP, why should a rule allowing traffic to localhost
exist?
A. All traffic to localhost must always be allowed.
B. It doesn\\’t matter; iptables never affects packets addressed to localhost
C. Sendmail delivers emails to localhost
D. Some applications use the localhost interface to communicate with other applications.
E. syslogd receives messages on localhost
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
It has been discovered that the company mail server is configured as an open relay. Which of the following actions
would help prevent the mail server from being used as an open relay? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Restrict Postfix to only accept e-mail for domains hosted on this server.
B. Configure Dovecot to support IMAP connectivity.
C. Configure netfilter to not permit port 25 traffic on the public network.
D. Restrict Postfix to only relay outbound SMTP from the internal network.
E. Upgrade the mailbox format from mbox to maildir.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which answer best describes the meaning of the following LDAP search commanD. ldapseareh -x”
(and(cn=marie)(telephoneNumber=9*))”
A. It is searching for all entries that don\\’t have the cn attribute equal to Marie OR the telephoneNumber attribute
starting with number 9
B. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute starting with
number 9
C. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute ending with
number 9
D. It is searching for all entries that don\\’t have the cn attribute equal to marie AND the telephoneNumber attribute
starting with number 9
E. It is searching for all entries that have the cn attribute different than marie OR the telephoneNumber attribute starting
with number 9
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which rdnc sub command can be used in conjunction with the name of a zone in order to make BIND reread the content
of the specific zone file without reloading other zones as well?
A. lookup
B. reload
C. fileupdate
D. reread
E. zoneupdate
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
There is a restricted area in a site hosted by Apache HTTPD, which requires users to authenticate against the file
/srv/www/security/sitepasswd.
Which command is used to CHANGE the password of existing users, without losing data, when Basic authentication is
being used?
A. htpasswd -c /srv/www/security/sitepasswd user
B. htpasswd /srv/www/security/sitepasswd user
C. htpasswd -n /srv/www/security/sitepasswd user
D. htpasswd -D /srv/www/security/sitepasswd user
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.4/howto/auth.html

QUESTION 11
Which option must be used with ifconfig, to also see interfaces that are down?
A. -d
B. -a
C. –all
D. –down
E. None.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
To be able to access the server with the IP address 10.12.34.56 using HTTPS, a rule for iptables has to be written.
Given that the client host\\’s IP address is 192.168.43.12, which of the following commands is correct?
A. iptables – A FORWARD -p tcp -s 0/0 -d 10.12.34.56 –dport 80 -j ACCEPT
B. iptables – A FORWARD -p tcp -s 192.168.43.12 d 10.12.34.56:443 -j ACCEPT.
C. iptables – A FORWARD -p tcp -s 192.168.43.12 -d 10.12.34.56 –dport 443 -j ACCEPT.
D. iptables – A INPUT -p tcp -s 192.168.43.12 – d 10.12.34.56:80 -j ACCEPT.
E. iptables – A FORWARD -p tcp -s 0/0 -d 10.12.34.56 –dport 443 -j ACCEPT.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
In a BIND zone file, what does the @ character indicate?
A. It\\’s the fully qualified hostname of the DNS server.
B. It\\’s an alias for the e-mail address of the zone master.
C. It\\’s the name of the zone as defined in the zone statement in named.conf.
D. It\\’s used to create an alias between two CNAME entries.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A company has a two chassis G Series cluster and wants to change the setup. This will require a reset of the chassis.
What is the correct procedure?
A. Reset both chassis simultaneously through the reset script
B. Reset the primary chassis first, followed by the secondary chassis, through the reset script.
C. Reset both chassis simultaneously with the mobile build server
D. Reset the secondary chassis first, followed by the primary chassis, through the reset script.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A VxRail Cluster setup with P570F nodes is used for product evaluation purposes at customer sites. Before moving the
Cluster to another customer site, it needs to be reset.
Where is the image located to complete this task?
A. SATADOM
B. IDSDM
C. BOSS
D. MB Server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is used to control remote access to VxRail through SRS?
A. VxRail Manager
B. SRS VE Gateway
C. vCenter
D. Policy Manager
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/en-us/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-support-information/products/convergedinfrastructure/h15300-vxrail-network-guide.pdf


QUESTION 4
You have been asked to deploy a single, 4 node VxRail cluster for company. They would like to perform an online
migration from their existing vSphere 6.0u2 environment. They have also asked that vCenter Enhanced linked-mode be
supported. Based on best practice, what is the recommended deployment model?
A. Use existing vCenter with External PSC
B. Deploy Internal vCenter with External PSC
C. Use existing vCenter with Embedded PSC
D. Deploy Internal vCenter with Embedded PSC
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
When running the VxRail SmartFabric Personality profile script, what is preserved from the initial default Full Switch
mode configuration?
A. Uplink Breakouts
B. ICL Uplinks
C.
D. VLAN1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In a 5 node VxRail cluster in which all nodes are the same model, which cluster requires the least amount of rack
space?
A. G560
B. E560
C. S570
D. V570
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
A planned VxRail deployment will use an External vCenter Server and Syslog server. Which ping connectivity tests
should succeed and which should fail before the deployment?
A. Succeed: ESXi hosts and syslogFail: VxRail Manager and vCenter
B. Succeed: VxRail Manager and ESXi hostsFail: vCenter and Syslog server
C. Succeed: vCenter and Syslog server fail: VxRail Manager and ESXi hosts
D. Succeed: VxRail Manager and syslogFail: vCenter and ESXi hosts
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
A Secure Remote Services deployment on a VxRail system with external vCenter fails with “Invalid target datastore
specified”. What is required to resolve this problem?
A. Ensure DNS is able to resolve the SRS/VE VM hostname
B. Retry the deployment through the retry button
C. Manually deploy Secure Remote Services
D. Restart vCenter services and retry the deployment
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docplayer.net/51201325-Welcome-to-vxrail-appliance-remote-support-and-troubleshootingcourse.html (55)


QUESTION 9
When using vSphere Web Client, what is the source of information that can help validate good VxRail system postdeployment status?
A. MARVIN-Virtual-SAN-Cluster > Monitor > Health Logical View
B. MARVIN-Virtual-SAN-Cluster > Monitor > Virtual SAN > Health
C. Last Heartbeat, Last Configuration Sent, Network Environment Settings, Cluster Monitor
D. System Diagnostic, Events, Health Logical View, Health Physical View, Log Bundle
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A company has a simple, 3 node VxRail cluster. The VxRail is running version 3.5 and utilizes a vSphere Enterprise
Plus license. The company has asked for a VxRail software upgrade. What are the steps for the upgrade?
A. Log in to VxRail Manager, select “Internet Upgrade”, then follow the prompts.
B. Log in to support.emc.com and download the upgrade packages.Next, open VxRail Manager, select “Off-line
Upgrade”, then follow the prompts.
C. Contact Dell EMC support to request the upgrade to the VxRail cluster.
D. Place four nodes into maintenance mode. Next, log in to VxRail Manager, select “Internet Upgrade”, then follow the
prompts.
Correct Answer: A
https://wuchikin.wordpress.com/2017/03/25/demo-upgrade-to-vxrail-4-0/

QUESTION 11

exammodule DES-6321 exam questions-q11

A 4 node VxRail solution will be deployed. Based on the exhibit, what will be the host name assigned to the last node in
the cluster?
A. MyVxRaild.mycompany.com
B. MyVxRail-4.mycompany.com
C. MyVxRail-d.mycompany.com
D. MyVxRail04.mycompany.com
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
View the Exhibit.

exammodule DES-6321 exam questions-q12

Based on the exhibit, which interfaces should be used to reset the node through the Mobile Build Server?
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which software component is an optional add-on for VxRail?
A. Dell EMC Secure Remote Support
B. VMware vRealize Log Insight
C. VMware vSAN
D. VMware vRealize Operations
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Q&As: 245

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QUESTION NO: 31
Adam works as a professional Penetration tester. A project has been assigned to him to employ penetration testing on the network of Umbrella Inc. He is running the test from home and had downloaded every security scanner from the Internet. Despite knowing the IP range of all of the systems, and the exact network configuration, Adam is unable to get any useful results. Which of the following is the most like cause of this problem?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security scanners are only as smart as their database and cannot find unpublished vulnerabilities.
B. Security scanners cannot perform vulnerability linkage.
C. Security scanners are smart as their database and can find unpublished vulnerabilities.
D. Security scanners are not designed to do testing through a firewall.
070-413 exam Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 32
An organization monitors the hard disks of its employees’ computers from time to time. Which policy does this pertain to?
A. Network security policy
B. User password policy
C. Privacy policy
D. Backup policy
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. You have configured the hard disk drive of your computer as shown in the image below: The computer is configured to dual-boot with Windows 2000 Server and Windows 98. While working on Windows 2000 Server, you save a file on the 6GB partition. You are unable to find the file while working on Windows 98. You are not even able to access the partition on which the file is saved. What is the most likely cause?
A. The file is corrupt.
B. The 6GB partition is corrupt.
C. Windows 98 does not support the NTFS file system.
D. Files saved in Windows 98 are not supported by Windows 2000.
070-413 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 34
Peter works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He has been called by an organization to conduct a seminar to give necessary information related to sexual harassment within the workplace. Peter started with the definition and types of sexual harassment. He then wants to convey that it is important that records of the sexual harassment incidents should be maintained, which helps in further legal prosecution. Which of the following data should be recorded in this documentation?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Names of the victims
B. Date and time of incident
C. Nature of harassment
D. Location of each incident
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following types of computers is used for attracting potential intruders?
A. Bastion host
B. Data pot
C. Files pot
D. Honey pot
070-413 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following standard file formats is used by Apple’s iPod to store contact information?
A. HFS+
B. hCard
C. vCard
D. FAT32
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following file systems cannot be used to install an operating system on the hard disk drive? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Windows NT file system (NTFS)
B. High-Performance File System (HPFS)
C. Log-structured file system (LFS)
D. Compact Disc File System (CDFS)
E. Novell Storage Services (NSS)
070-413 vce Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following types of evidence proves or disproves a specific act through oral testimony based on information gathered through the witness’s five senses?
A. Conclusive evidence
B. Best evidence
C. Hearsay evidence
D. Direct evidence
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following two cryptography methods are used by NTFS Encrypting File System (EFS) to encrypt the data stored on a disk on a file-by-file basis?
A. Digital certificates
B. Public key
C. RSA
D. Twofish
070-413 exam Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following sections of an investigative report covers the background and summary of the report including the outcome of the case and the list of allegations?
A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 3
D. Section 1
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 41
Which of the following switches of the XCOPY command copies attributes while copying files?
A. /o
B. /p
C. /k
D. /s
070-413 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following directories in Linux operating system contains device files, which refers to physical devices?
A. /boot
B. /etc
C. /dev
D. /bin
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
Which of the following directories cannot be placed out of the root filesystem? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. /sbin
B. /etc
C. /var
D. /lib
070-413 pdf Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 44
On which of the following locations does the Windows NT/2000 operating system contain the SAM, SAM.LOG, SECURITY.LOG, APPLICATION.LOG, and EVENT.LOG files?
A. \%Systemroot%system32
B. \%Systemroot%profiles
C. \%Systemroot%system32config
D. \%Systemroot%help
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 45
You are handling technical support calls for an insurance company. A user calls you complaining that he cannot open a file, and that the file name appears in green while opening in Windows Explorer.
What does this mean?
A. The file is encrypted.
B. The file belongs to another user.
C. The file is infected with virus.
D. The file is compressed.
070-413 vce Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?
A. Trade secret
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Trademark
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following file systems supports the hot fixing feature?
A. FAT16
B. exFAT
C. FAT32
D. NTFS
070-413 exam Answer: D

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[Ensure Pass PDF Exam From Google Drive] Preparing for Latest Updated 70-461 PDF Microsoft SQL Server 2012 70-461 Practice Test Online on Yumpu

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Exam Code: 70-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Jul 21, 2017
Q&As: 164

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070-461

Pass4itsure  Latest and Most Accurate 70-461 PDF Dumps Exam Q&As:

Question No: 26 You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products.
The Products table has the following definition:070-461

You need to create an audit record only when either the retail price or wholesale price
the column is updated.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(retail price, wholesale price)
– – Create Audit Records
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted)
– – Create Audit Records
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(retail price, wholesale price)

– – Create Audit Records
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS
IF UPDATE(retail price) OR UPDATE(wholesale price)
– – Create Audit Records
070-461 pdf Answer: D

Question No: 27 A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits
the table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year
and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit,
LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PrevProfit
FROM Profits
Answer: C

Question No: 28 You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database to develop a shopping cart application.
You need to rotate the unique values of the ProductName field of a table-valued expression
into multiple columns in the output.
Which Transact-SQL operator should you use?
A. CROSS JOIN
B. CROSS APPLY
C. PIVOT
D. UNPIVOT
070-461 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No: 29  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a shopping application.
You need to retrieve a list of customers who live in territories that do not have a salesperson. Which Transact- SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> SOME(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
B. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ALL(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
C. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ANY(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
D. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID NOT IN(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson) Answer: B, D
You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No: 30
070-461

Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY GROUPING SETS((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy,
SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID
GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total
FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson
ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID

GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
070-461 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Be careful with this question, because on an exam can be different options for answer.
And none of them is correct : D You should report this question.

You are developing a database that will contain price information. You need to store the
prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits. Which data type should you
use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Small money
D. Numeric
Answer: D
Explanation:
Numeric is the only one in the list that can give a fixed precision and scale.
Question No: 31
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a banking transaction
management application.
You need to retrieve a list of account holders who live in cities that do not have a branch
location.
Which Transact-SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
Question No: 32
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID NOT IN (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
B. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ALL (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
C. SELECT AccountHolderlD
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> SOME (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
D. SELECT AccountHolderID
FROM AccountHolder
WHERE CityID <> ANY (SELECT CityID FROM BranchMaster)
70-461 vce
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Verified the answers as correct.
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No: 33
070-461

Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
employee data. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee

table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data
integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you create a unique
constraint?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. employed
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Answer: D
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table
named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No: 34
070-461

✑ ✑
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named
employee data. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee
table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity
and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you use an identity specification to include
a seed of 1,000 and an increment of 1?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
70-461 pdf
Answer: C
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that includes a table named
Products. The Products table has columns named Productld, ProductName, and
CreatedDateTime.
The table contains a unique constraint on the combination of ProductName and
CreatedDateTime.
You need to modify the Products table to meet the following requirements:
Remove all duplicates of the Products table based on the ProductName column.
Retain only the newest Product row.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
Question No : 35
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
B. ProductName = cte.ProductName
AND p.CreatedDateTime > cte.CreatedDateTime
C. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
cte.ProductName = p.ProductName
AND cte.CreatedDateTime > p.CreatedDateTime
D. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MIN(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
E. ProductName = cte.ProductName
F. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
G. ProductName = cte.ProductName
Answer: B
Question No: 36You develop three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 databases named Database1, Database2,
and Database3.
You have permissions on both Database1 and Database2. You plan to write and deploy a
stored procedure named dbo.usp_InsertEvent in Database3. dbo.usp_InsertEvent must
execute other stored procedures in the other databases.
You need to ensure that callers that do not have permissions on Database1 or Database2
can execute the stored procedure.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. USE Database2
B. EXECUTE AS OWNER
C. USE Database1
D. EXECUTE AS CALLER
070-461 dumps 
Answer: B
Question No: 37  You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales
schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the
Sales schema. You need to manage users who are prevented from deleting records in the
Sales schema.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What
should you do? A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the
Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the
users to the
db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on
each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a Product
table created by using the following definition:
Question No: 38
070-461

You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the
Product table.
What should you do?
A. Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B. Implement Unicode Compression.
C. Implement row-level compression.
D. Implement page-level compression.
070-461 vce 
Answer: D
You generate a daily report according to the following query:
Question No: 39
070-461

You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate]
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c
ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID
WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (

SELECT s.OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s
ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID
WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
D. Rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM
Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID,
90))
Rewrite the UDF as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge DateTime)
RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (
SELECT OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID
AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, [email protected], GETDATE())
070-461 exam 
Answer: A
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are
defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Question No : 40
070-461

You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the
CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format:

<row OrderId=”1″ OrderDate=”2000-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”3400.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
<row OrderId=”2″ OrderDate=”2001-01-01T00:00:00″ Amount=”4300.00″
Name=”Customer
A” Country=”Australia” />
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1
FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId- 1
FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, Ordered, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId,
OrderDate, Amount
FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId
WHERE Customers.CustomerId= 1
FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)

Answer: A
You have a database that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit
button.)
Question No: 41 CORRECT TEXT
070-461

You have the following query:
070-461

✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
You need to recreate the query to meet the following requirements:
Reference columns by using one-part names only.
Sort aggregates by SalesTerritoryID, and then by ProductID.
Order the results in descending order from SalesTerritoryID to Product
The solution must use the existing SELECT clause and FROM clause
Which code segment should you use?
To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.
Answer: Please review the explanation part for this answer
Answer:
070-461

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Exam Code: 70-489
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Updated: Aug 10, 2017
Q&As: 97

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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate 70-489 Dumps Exam Q&As:

1. Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including
application provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
070-489 exam Answer: A
2. Which GVP application is used to build and test voice applications?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: D
3. Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
070-489 dumps Answer: C
4. The GVP VoiceXML application logic resides on .
A. a web server
B. the VCS
C. the VPM
D. the IPCM
Answer: A
5. How are VoiceXML pages produced during a GVP call session?
A. Web application server generates VoiceXML when processing asp or jsp pages
B. VCS or IPCS produce VoiceXML when the call is initiated
C. EMPS produces VoiceXML when the request comes in
D. IPCS creates the VoiceXML when it relays SIP messages
070-489 pdf Answer: A
6. The Voice Communication Server (VCS) processes calls.
A. VoIP
B. IPCS
C. Web-based GUI
D. TDM
Answer: D
7. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes calls.

A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM D.
EMPS
070-489 vce Answer: A
8. The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM D.
EMPS
Answer: A
9. A Primary Voice Application URL is required when provisioning the IVR Profile. The Primary Voice
Application CANNOT include .
A. the fully qualified name of the web server that hosts the application
B. the numeric IP address of the web server that hosts the application
C. the name of the first page of the voice application
D. the path to the <Application Name>.XML file
070-489 exam Answer: D
10. Refer to the CTI Property tab in the Provisioning IVR profile section in the EMPS. The Default Route
Number is used when .
A. IVR Server is unable to contact the Solution Control Interface (SCI)
B. IVR Server is unable to contact the Universal Routing Server (URS), or when the URS is unable to
find an agent number to which it can route the call
C. IVR component, specifically Genesys Queue Adapter (GQA), cannot communicate with SCS.
D. IVR Server component cannot communicate with the Web Server
Answer: B
11.The <DNIS>.XML and <Application_Name>.xml files are generated when .
A. a call arrives at the VCS
B. an application is created and configured in EMPS
C. the WatchDog on the EMPS is restarted
D. requested by the IVR Server
070-489 dumps Answer: B
12. The <Application_Name>.xml files provides all of the .
A. VCS configuration information
B. voice application information
C. IPCS configuration information
D. web server configuration information
Answer: B
13. The DNIS.xml provides .
A. the Primary Application URL
B. all application configuration information but no process information
C. the address of the IVR Server
D. the URL path to the <Application_Name>.XML
070-489 pdf Answer: D
14. Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. <install dir>\CN\data
B. <install dir>\CN\web\dispenser\spd_data
C. <install dir>\CN\config
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer: B
15. In the <Application_Name>.xml file, the IVRTimeout value determines .
A. how long URS waits for the response from web server before timing out and trying default routing
target.
B. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Backup IVR URL.
C. how long GQA waits for the connection with the IVR Server before using the Backup IVR URL.
D. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Primary IVR URL.
070-489 vce Answer: B
16. Which of the following features can be changed using the Element Management System (EMS) GUI
when monitoring a VCS?
A. the log level for each process
B. the default directory for logging
C. the Behind or In-Front configuration for that particular VCS
D. the speech recognition vendor for that particular VCS
Answer: A
17.When would you use the Import Server Instance CSV feature in EMPS?
A. Never. This feature is not available through the EMPS
B. Any time you want to make a change to any of the parameters in EMPS
C. You want to start the Watchdog service
D. When numerous changes are needed with servers or configuration of various components for a
server and in conjunction with Genesys Technical Support
070-489 exam Answer: D
18. Under what circumstances is a username and password required to access the EMPS?
A. Never. By default, a username and password is not required since EMPS is only used for monitoring
purposes.
B. Always. When opening EMPS Login screen, the system will require users enter their username and

password.
C. Only when the EMPS is being accessed from a remote workstation. You are automatically
authenticated and can log in from a local machine.
D. Only when using SunOne Directory Server because OpenLDAP has no built-in security for the EMPS
login screen.
Answer: B
19. The ability to record the caller’s speech for application analysis is configured in an IVR Profile within
the EMPS and is referred to as .
A. OA&M
B. EMS Runtime
C. Enable ASR Transcoding
D. Enable ASR Logging
070-489 dumps Answer: D
20.The process on the VCS/IPCS that starts the other component processes is the .
A. Page Collector
B. IVR Server Client C.
Call Flow Assistant D.
WatchDog
Answer: D
21.Which VCS/IPCS component controls the TDM telephony or IP Telephony interfaces?
A. PopGateway
B. Page Collector
C. MRCP Client
D. Net Management
070-489 pdf Answer: A
22. Which of the following are Windows prerequisites for VCS?
A. there are no Windows prerequisites
B. Active Directory
C. IIS and SNMP
D. SQL Server
Answer: C

23. A logical group of ports is referred to as a .
A. Telephony Manager
B. Route
C. Page Collector
D. MRCP Client
070-489 vce Answer: B

24. For most deployments with VCS configured in Behind-the-Switch mode using Genesys Framework,
DNIS is obtained through what mechanism?
A. VCS request to the T-Server via IVR Server
B. VCS requests to the Dialogic telephony board
C. a route point corresponding to the appropriate strategy
D. VCS request directly to the ACD/PBX
Answer: A

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Free Download First-hand Microsoft 70-480 Vce Exam Collection for Microsoft Windows Store Apps

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this 70-480 exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. Testcos appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Windows Store apps
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Exam Code: 70-480
Total Questions: 205 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 06, 2017
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-480.html
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Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-480 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question No : 18 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  An HTML page has a canvas element.
You need to draw a red rectangle on the canvas element dynamically. The rectangle
should resemble the following graphic.
70-480 vce

How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from
the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)  You are developing an HTML5 page that has an element with an ID of logo. The page
includes the following HTML.
<div>
Logo:<br>
<div id=”logo”>
</div>
</div>
You need to move the logo element lower on the page by five pixels.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. document.getElementById(“logo”) .style.position = “relative”;
B. document.getElementByld(“logo”).Style.top = “5px”;
C. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.top = “-5px”;
D. document.getElementById(“logo”).style.position = “absolute”;
Answer: A,B
Reference:

Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a web page by using HTML5 and C5S3. The page includes a <div> tag
with the ID set to validate.
When the page is rendered, the contents of the <div> tag appear on a line separate from
the content above and below it. The rendered page resembles the following graphic.
70-480 vce

The page must be rendered so that the <div> tag is not forced to be separate from the
other content. The following graphic shows the correctly rendered output.

70-480 vce

You need to ensure that the page is rendered to meet the requirement.
Which line of code should you use?
A. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.display = “inline”;
B. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.margin = “0”;
C. document.getElementById(“validate”).style.padding = “0”;
D. document.getElementSyId(“validate”).style.display = “block”;
Answer: A
Reference:

Question No : 21 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1) You are creating a web worker for an HTML5 application.
The following tasks must be performed from within the web worker:
Register an event listener for the web worker
Start and stop the web worker
You need to define a function that performs the required tasks.
Which code segment should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate option from the
drop-down list in the answer area.)
70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)  You are creating a JavaScript function that displays the name of a web application.
You declare the following button element.
<input type=”button” id= “About” value=”About” />
When a user clicks the button, a JavaScript function named About must be called.
You need to create an event handler that calls the About function when the button is
clicked.
Which two code segments can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete
solution. Choose two.)

70-480 vce

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C,D
Reference:

Question No : 23 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You are creating a function by using JavaScript. The function accepts an object as the
parameter and returns a string that identifies the data type of the object.
✑ ✑ ✑
You have the following requirements:
The function must return “Number” if the object is a number.
The function must return “String” if the object is a string.
The function must return “Unknown” if the object is neither a number nor a string.
You need to implement the function to meet the requirements.
How should you build the code segment? (To answer, select the appropriate options from
the drop-down lists in the answer area.)

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

70-480 vce

Question No : 24 – (Topic 1) You need to test the value of the following variable in JavaScript.
var length = “75”;
A block of code must execute if the length equals 75 regardless of the data type.
You need to use the statement that meets this requirement.
Which lines of code should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. if (length = = = 75)
B. if (length = = 75)
C. if (length! = 75)
D. if (length = = “75”)
Answer: B,D

Question No : 25 – (Topic 1) You are developing an application that uses a third-party JavaScript library named
doWork().
The library occasionally throws an “object is null or undefined” error with an error code of
-2146823281.
The application must:
Extract and handle the exceptions thrown by doWork()
Continue normal program execution if other exceptions occur
You need to implement the requirements.
Which code segment should you use?
70-480 vce

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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Preparation Guide for Up To Date Microsoft 70-411 Exam Administering Windows Server 2012

Exam Code: 70-411
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Updated: Mar 17, 2017
Q&As: 234
Published: September 17, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012 R2
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
Exam Information:https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-411.html

70-411 Exam Objetives

1.1 Deploy and manage server images

  • Windows Deployment Services Overview (TechNet Library)70-411 exam
  • What’s New for Windows Deployment Services (TechNet Library)
  • Windows Deployment Services Getting Started Guide for Windows Server 2012 (TechNet Library)
  • Deploying 70-411 exam Windows Server 2012: From Bare Metal, Server Core, Minimal Server Interface, and More (Session: Andrew Mason @ TechEd North America 2012)
  • What’s New in Windows Deployment Services in Windows Server 2012 R2 (R2)
  • Windows Deployment Services Cmdlets in Windows PowerShell (R2)
  • Using the WDS PowerShell Cmdlets in Windows Server 2012 R2 (R2)
  • Managing and Deploying Driver Packages in Windows Deployment Services (R2)

Real4exam Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-411 Exam Q&As 

70-411 exam Question No : 32 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has a
share named Share1.
When users without permission to Share1 attempt to access the share, they receive the
Access Denied message as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-411 exam

You deploy a new file server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure Server2 to display the same custom Access Denied message as
Server1.
What should you install on Server2?
A. The Remote Assistance feature
B. The Storage Services server role
C. The File Server Resource Manager role service
D. The Enhanced Storage feature
Answer: C
Explanation:
Access-Denied Assistance is a new role service of the File Server role in Windows Server
2012.

70-411 exam

We need to install the prerequisites for Access-Denied Assistance.
Because Access-Denied Assistance relies up on e-mail notifications, we also need to
configure each relevant file server with a Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server
address. Let’s do that quickly with Windows PowerShell:
Set-FSRMSetting -SMTPServer mailserver. nuggetlab.com -AdminEmailAddress
[email protected] -FromEmailAddress [email protected]
You can enable Access-Denied Assistance either on a per-server basis or centrally via
Group Policy. To my mind, the latter approach is infinitely preferable from an administration
standpoint.
Create a new GPO and make sure to target the GPO at your file servers’ Active Directory
computer accounts as well as those of your AD client computers. In the Group Policy
Object Editor, we are looking for the following path to configure Access-Denied Assistance:
\Computer Configuration\Policies\Administrative Templates\System\Access-Denied
Assistance

70-411 exam

The Customize message for Access Denied errors policy, shown in the screenshot below,
enables us to create the actual message box shown to users when they access a shared
file to which their user account has no access.

70-411 exam

What’s cool about this policy is that we can “personalize” the e-mail notifications to give us
administrators (and, optionally, file owners) the details they need to resolve the permissions
issue quickly and easily.
For instance, we can insert pre-defined macros to swap in the full path to the target file, the
administrator e-mail address, and so forth. See this example:
Whoops! It looks like you’re having trouble accessing [Original File Path]. Please click
Request Assistance to send [Admin Email] a help request e-mail message. Thanks!
You should find that your users prefer these human-readable, informative error messages
to the cryptic, non-descript error dialogs they are accustomed to dealing with.
The Enable access-denied assistance on client for all file types policy should be enabled to
force client computers to participate in Access-Denied Assistance. Again, you must make
sure to target your GPO scope accordingly to “hit” your domain workstations as well as
your Windows Server 2012 file servers.
Testing the configuration
This should come as no surprise to you, but Access-Denied Assistance works only with
Windows Server 2012 and Windows 8 computers. More specifically, you must enable the
Desktop Experience feature on your servers to see Access-Denied Assistance messages
on server computers.
When a Windows 8 client computer attempts to open a file to which the user has no
access, the custom Access-Denied Assistance message should appear:

70-411 exam

If the user clicks Request Assistance in the Network Access dialog box, they see a
secondary message:

70-411 exam

At the end of this process, the administrator(s) will receive an e-mail message that contains
the key information they need in order to resolve the access problem:
The user’s Active Directory identity
The full path to the problematic file
A user-generated explanation of the problem
So that’s it, friends! Access-Denied Assistance presents Windows systems administrators
with an easy-to-manage method for more efficiently resolving user access problems on
shared file system resources. Of course, the key caveat is that your file servers must run
Windows Server 2012 and your client devices must run Windows 8, but other than that, this
is a great technology that should save admins extra work and end-users extra headaches.

70-411 exam Question No : 33 – (Topic 0)  You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
File Server Resource Manager role service installed.
Each time a user receives an access-denied message after attempting to access a folder
✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑ ✑
on Server1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL1.
You create a folder named Folder1 on Server1, and then you configure custom NTFS
permissions for Folder1.
You need to ensure that when a user receives an access-denied message while attempting
to access Folder1, an email notification is sent to a distribution list named DL2. The
solution must not prevent DL1 from receiving notifications about other access-denied
messages.
What should you do?
A. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by
selecting the SMB Share – Advanced option.
B. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Access-Denied Assistance
settings.
C. From the File Server Resource Manager console, modify the Email Notifications
settings.
D. From Server Manager, run the New Share Wizard to create a share for Folder1 by
selecting the SMB Share -Applications option.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Configure the email notification settings
You must configure the email notification settings on each file server that will send the
access-denied assistance messages.
Open File Server Resource Manager. In Server Manager, click Tools, and then
click File Server Resource Manager.
Right-click File Server Resource Manager (Local), and then click Configure
Options.
Click the Email Notifications tab.
Configure the following settings:
In the SMTP server name or IP address box, type the name of IP address of the
SMTP server in your organization.
In the Default administrator recipients and Default “From” e-mail address boxes,
type the email address of the file server administrator.
Click Send Test E-mail to ensure that the email notifications are configured
correctly.
Click OK.

70-411 exam Question No : 34 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0) Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the File
Server Resource Manager role service installed.
You need to configure Server1 to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that old files in a folder named Folder1 are archived automatically to a
folder named Archive1.
Ensure that all storage reports are saved to a network share.
Which two nodes should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate two nodes in the answer area.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam

70-411 exam Question No : 35 DRAG DROP – (Topic 0)  You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the
Web Server (IIS) server role installed.
Server1 will host a web site at URL The application pool
identity account of the web site will be set to a domain user account named AppPool1.
You need to identify the setspn.exe command that you must run to configure the
appropriate Service Principal Name (SPN) for the web site.
What should you run?
To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct location. Each object may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam Question No : 36 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. DC1 is
backed up daily.
The domain has the Active Directory Recycle Bin enabled.
During routine maintenance, you delete 500 inactive user accounts and 100 inactive
groups. One of the deleted groups is named Group1. Some of the deleted user accounts
are members of some of the deleted groups.
For documentation purposes, you must provide a list of the members of Group1 before the
group was deleted.
You need to identify the names of the users who were members of Group1 prior to its
deletion.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?
A. Mount the most recent Active Directory backup.
B. Reactivate the tombstone of Group1.
C. Perform an authoritative restore of Group1.
D. Use the Recycle Bin to restore Group1.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Active Directory Recycle Bin does not have the ability to track simple changes to
objects.
If the object itself is not deleted, no element is moved to the Recycle Bin for possible
recovery in the future. In other words, there is no rollback capacity for changes to object
properties, or, in other words, to the values of these properties.

70-411 exam

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Cisco Practice Tests:200-125 CCNA

QUESTION 1
Which command is needed to send RIPv2 updates as broadcast when configured for RIPv2?
A. ip rip v2-broadcast
B. ip rip receive version 1
C. ip rip receive version 2
D. version 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which feature enables a router to pass DHCPOFFER messages to other interfaces on the same router?
A. DHCP server address exclusions
B. DNS helper addresses
C. DHCP smart-relay
D. DHCP server boot files
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?
A. Ping the loopback address.
B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping the local interface address.
D. Ping the remote network.
Correct Answer: D
Ping is a tool that helps to verify IP-level connectivity; PathPing is a tool that detects packet loss over multiple-hop trips.
When troubleshooting, the ping command is used to send an ICMP Echo Request to a target host name or IP address.
Use Ping whenever you want to verify that a host computer can send IP packets to a destination host. You can also use
the Ping tool to isolate network hardware problems and incompatible configurations. If you call ipconfig /all and receive
a
response, there is no need to ping the loopback address and your own IP address — Ipconfig has already done so in
order to generate the report.
It is best to verify that a route exists between the local computer and a network host by first using ping and the IP
address of the network host to which you want to connect. The command syntax is:
ping
Perform the following steps when using Ping:
Ping the loopback address to verify that TCP/IP is installed and configured correctly on the local computer.
ping 127.0.0.1
If the loopback step fails, the IP stack is not responding. This might be because the TCP drivers are corrupted, the
network adapter might not be working, or another service is interfering with IP.
Ping the IP address of the local computer to verify that it was added to the network correctly. Note that if the routing
table is correct, this simply forwards the packet to the loopback address of 127.0.0.1.
ping
Ping the IP address of the default gateway to verify that the default gateway is functioning and that you can
communicate with a local host on the local network.
ping
Ping the IP address of a remote host to verify that you can communicate through a router.
ping
Ping the host name of a remote host to verify that you can resolve a remote host name.
ping
Run a PathPing analysis to a remote host to verify that the routers on the way to the destination are operating correctly.
pathping

QUESTION 4
which statement about recovering a password on a cisco router is true ?
A. it requires physical access to the router
B. the default reset password is cisco
C. a factory reset is required if you forget the password
D. it requires a secure SSL/VPN connection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?
A. CAM table
B. Trunk table
C. MAC table
D. binding database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
A. discarding
B. listening
C. learning
D. forwarding
E. disabled
Correct Answer: AD
There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D
disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state.
STP (802.1D) Port State RSTP (802.1w) Port State Is Port Included in Active Topology? Is Port Learning MAC
Addresses? Disabled Discarding No No Blocking Discarding No No Listening Discarding Yes No Learning Learning Yes
Yes Forwarding Forwarding Yes Yes Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cf a.s html#states

QUESTION 7
Which three functions are major components of a network virtualization architecture? (Choose three.)
A. network access control
B. virtual network services
C. policy enforcement
D. authentication services
E. network resilience
F. path isolation
Correct Answer: ABF
Network virtualization architecture has three main components: + Network access control and segmentation of classes
of users: Users are authenticated and either allowed or denied into a logical partition. Users are segmented into
employees, contractors and consultants, and guests, with respective access to IT assets. This component identifies
users who are authorized to access the network and then places them into the appropriate logical partition. + Path
isolation:
Network isolation is preserved across the entire enterprise: from the edge to the campus to the WAN and back again.
This component maintains traffic partitioned over a routed infrastructure and transports traffic over and between
isolated
partitions. The function of mapping isolated paths to VLANs and to virtual services is also performed in component.+
Network Services virtualization:
This component provides access to shared or dedicated network services such as security, quality of service (QoS), and
address management (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol [DHCP] and Domain Name System [DNS]). It also applies
policy per partition and isolates application environments, if required.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-6500-series-switches/white_paper_c11-531522.pdf

QUESTION 8
Which option describes a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
A. full-mesh capability
B. flexibility of design
C. low cost
D. simplicity of configuration
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually?
A. static
B. dynamic
C. sticky
D. bia
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the extended traceout option from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 200-125 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 200-125 exam questions q10-2

QUESTION 11
which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface
becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. no additional config is required
B. standby 1 track ethernet
C. standby 1 preempt
D. standby 1 priority 250
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are two statement for SSH?
A. use port 22
B. unsecured
C. encrypted
D. most common remote-access method
E. operate at transport
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which three values can be included in the routing table of a router? (Choose three)
A. classful and classless destination addresses
B. source interfaces
C. Routgoing interfaces
D. source IP addresses
E. next hop IP address
F. destination IP addresses
Correct Answer: CDF

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